French Participe Passe Agreement
[Who/what is washed?" --> "They." The subject is therefore the addressee of the complaint, there is a consensus.] But the verbs of Have need coherence in a very specific construction: the past participation must correspond to the direct object if it precedes the verb. Many people want to reject the direct object agreement - what do you think? Read the article and chat on Facebook: The rules of the past participation agreement vary. The fundamentals are as follows: For a long time, the curse of French students, the participation agreement made is not as difficult as it seems at first. There are two basic rules, each with a nuance: in general, the past part does not correspond to anything when Aura is used. "The hands" is the direct object and is fixed according to the verb, no correspondence.] We found that, in everyday language, native French speakers do not tend to enter into previous participation agreements with Avoir when they are the norm in formal writing. The same goes for reflex verbs. For example, the formal form of this sentence corresponds earlier to the direct object: "The pancakes I ate": a new agreement for the past participle 5) In the case of semi-auxiliaries, there is no correspondence with the direct object, because the object always belongs to the infinitiv, not to the semi-auxiliary. Have you seen Romain`s new bike? There is a bought one here. .